Because there is clear evidence that that is their practical effect, and there is insufficient voter fraud to justify them.
It's just another form of Jim Crow. This is clear to everyone except those who have been suckered by the Republicans’ feeble arguments.
At least under segregation, the Dixiecrats were honest about their motives.
Read other answers by Ernest W. Adams on Quora:
- Why hasn't the U.S. ever elected a Jewish or Muslim president?
- What's the political calculus behind Sec. Clinton courting Republicans?
- Why didn't Barack Obama appoint Hillary Clinton as VP?
from Quora http://ift.tt/2e4eKx6
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